FCPS Past Papers, Recalls, Medicine
& Allied, May 2010
recalled by latifaziz
Q1-A patient comes to a doctor with a complain of pain down the medial side of right forearm & hand ,wasting of the small muscles of hand .on examination ,circulation of right upper limb was also impaired .the anatomical structure:
A. head of right humerus
B. left cervical rib
C. right 2nd rib
D. right first rib
E. right cervical rib
Q 2-A 45 years old man fell on his back from the 2nd storey of building. Two days after admitting in hospital .he complained of inability to void urine & urinary incontinence. Most likely spinal segment involved is:
A. l2.3.4
B. l3,4.5
C. L5, s1, s2.
D. S1.s2.3
E. S2.3.4
Q 3-When performing lumber puncture .the following structure is pierced by needle:
A: the posterior longitudinal ligament
B: dura mater
C: pia mater
D: Denticulate ligament
Q 4.Fat absorption is occurs primarily in the
A: stomach
B: jejunum
C: terminal ileum
D: cecum
E: colon
Q 5. Secretion of HCL by gastric parietal cell is mediated by
A: H1 receptor
B: H2 receptor
C: pepsin
D: intrinsic factor
E: presence of food.
Q-6 Bicarbonate is absorbed from
A: proximal tubule
B: loop of henle
C: collecting tubule
D: proximal tubule & DCT
E: proximal tubule & collecting tubule
Q-7 A young female presented with high grade fever of 6 days duration for a definite diagnosis of typhoid, the most useful test at this stage would be
A: blood culture
B: stool culture
C: typhidot test
D: urine culture
E: widal test
Q-8A young man presented with low grade fever for the last three months, on examination, nasal bridge was distorted & cervical lymph nodes were palpable .histology of these lymph nodes revealed non caseating granuloma & positive AFB stain: most likely diagnosis is:
A: cat scratch disease
B: leprosy
C: sarcoidosis
D: syphilis
E: tuberculosis
Q-9: which of the following lab investigation is the best for monitoring of hepatitis B viral infection:
A: prothrombin time
B: serum Albumin
C: serum bilirubin
D: serum glutamic pyruvate transaminase
E: serum protein
Q-10:A lady had a difficult labour at home in village .she was brought to hospital with history of bleeding p/v & oozing from gums for the last 10 hours. Her blood complete picture revealed .Hb: 6 g/dl, platelets 30,000/cumm, TLC 24,000/cumm with neutophillia.the peripheral blood film shows burr cells. Her PT & APTT were prolonged. Most likely cause is:
A: disseminated intravascular coagulation
B: ITP
C: postpartum hemorrhage
D: septicemia
E: von will brand disease
Q-11: Most abundant endogenous pigment deposition in chronic haemolysis is:
A: bilirubin
B: biliverdin
C: haemosiderin
D: lipfuscin
E: melanin
Q-12: A 30 year old primigravida presented at 36 week of gestation with bilirubin of 20mgldl ,SGPT 275u/l & SGOT 193u/l .two month ago she visited her parents is a remote village .she has no history of surgery in past or blood transfusion .most likely cause of infection is:
A: hepatitis A
B: hepatitis B
C: hepatitis C
D: hepatitis D
E: hepatitis E
Q-13: Which of the following parasite is Associated with urinary bladder carcinoma.
A: leishmania donovani
B: schistosoma heamatobium
C: schistosoma japonicum
D: schistosoma mansoni
E: toxoplasma gondii
Q-14: Respiratory symptoms are characteristic of one of the following conditions:
A: ascariasis
B: billharziasis
C: cysticercosis
D: fascioliasis
E: giardiasis
Q-15: The most important distinguishing feature of exudate, compared to transudate is:
A: above 2.0gms% protein
B: albumin is the main protein
C: presence of the large number of inflammatory cells
D: presence of the large number of the platelets
E: specific gravity is about 1.020
Q-16: The natural antithrombotic agent which is present in blood is :
A: dimercaprol
B: heparin
C: plasminogen
D: vitamin C
E: warfarin
Q-17: A 30 years old female with joint pain & muscle stiffness for 3 years. HLA-DR4 is positive, what is most appropriate diagnosis.
A: ankylosing spondylitis
B: graves disease
C: myasthenia gravis
D: rheumatoid arthritis
E: SLE
Q-18 Regarding digoxin toxicity is increased by
A: hyperkalemia
B: Quinidine
C:
D: hypermagnesemia
E: hypocalcaemia
Q-19: Antiarrythmic Action of lidocaine on hear is.
A: Prolong Action potential duration
B: It Decreases automaticity
C: shortens RMP of heart
D: prolong the effective refractory period
E:
Q-20:A 60 year old patient of emphysema presents with Dyspnoea of sudden onset with chest pain .on examination pulse 110/min; Bp 105/85mmHg.trachea shifted towards right,hyperresonant percussion note & decreased breath sounds on the left side. the investigation which will be most helpful in the diagnosis is:
A: ABGs
B: cardiac enzymes
C: chest x-ray
D: E.C.G
E: sputum routine examination
Q-21: A 70 year old woman undergoes a gastrectomy for the zollinger-ellision syndrome. Her physician informs her that she will need to take intramuscular vitamin-b12 shots for the rest of her life. Absence of which of the following cell type is responsible for this vitamin replacement requirement.
A: chief cells
B: G cells
C: Goblet cell
D: Mucous neck cells
E: parietal cells
Q-22: A patient is to get renal transplant, the tissues for Histocompatibilty required would be.
A: Bone marrow
B: buccal mucosa
C: RBCs
D: renal tissue
E WBC
Q-23: Lesion of the Right optic tract causes:
A: left homonymous hemianopia
B: left nasal hemianopia
C: loss of papillary reflexes
D: Right temporal hemianopia
E; total blindness
Q-24: Slow wave sleep is induced by
A: dopamine
B: epinephrine
C: Glutamate
D: Acetylcholine
E: serotonin
Q-25: Duodenum contains
A: sub mucosal glands
B: well-developed plica
C: crypts
D: aggregation of lymphoid nodule
E: villi
Q-26: A patient has penetrating ulcer of the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum which blood vessels is subject to erosion:
A: common hepatic artery
B: Gastroduodenal artery
C: left Gastric artery
D: hepatic artery
E: Anterior inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
Q-27: hemiballismus result from lesion of
A: Globus Pallidus
B: caudate nucleus
C: internal capsule
D: sub thalamic nucleus
E: substantia nigra
Q-28: Subdural hematoma results from head trauma that tears the:
A: middle meningeal artery
B: Anterior division of middle meningeal artery
C: posterior division of middle meningeal artery
D: superficial temporal artery
E: superficial cerebral vein
Q-29: Neonate with erythroblastosis Fetalis is massively transfused with blood, After 10 days developed rash first on palms, then face & trunk along with diarrhea. What is the probable cause?
A: cytomegalovirus infection
B: GVH disease
C: Delayed transfusion reaction
D: Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
E: ABO incompatibility
Q-30: Pendular knee jerk is seen in lesion of:
A; sub thalamic nucleus
B: cerebellum
C: cerebral cortex
D: basal ganglion
E: spinal cord
Q-31: patient have positive Accommodation reflex but light reflex is lost, the lesion is at the level of.
A: occipital cortex
B: lateral Geniculate Body
C: superior collicilus
D: Pretectal area
E: Optic radiation
Q-32: Primary Hyperaldosteronism
A: Acidosis
B: Hpokalemia
C: hyponatremia
D: hypotension
E: Weakness
Q-33: Functional residual capacity
A: is measured by spirometry
B: is the sum of the Residual volume & inspiratoy reserve volume
C: is the sum o0f residual volume & vital capacity
D: is the sum of the residual volume & tidal volume
E: is the volume of the air remaining in the lungs after a normal tidal volume
Q-34:A 40 year old ,type 2 diabetic, he is 15 Ib overweight ,present with blood sugar of 20mmol/l he has no diabetic complication at the time of presentation .what is the most suitable initial treatment ,in addition to diet & exercise.?
A: Biguanide
B: Biguanide & sulphonylurea
C: insulin
D: insulin & sulphonylurea
E: sulphonylurea
Q-35 Side effects of thiazide diuretics.
A: hyperglycemia
B: hyperkalemia
C: hyperuricemia
D: hypocalcemia
E: hpernatremia
Q-36 Hypospadias occurs due to defect in
A: urogenital Ridge
B: urogenital tubercle
C: urogenital fold
D: urachus
E: Gubernaculum
Q-37: Retroperitoneal Abscess mostly involve
A: Descending colon
B: spleen
C: transverse colon
D: Appendix
E: cecum
Q-38: A 15 year old boy came to the clinic with history of splenomegly
With lymphadenopathy.bone marrow biopsy was performed on medial side of tibia in order to avoid injury to the:
A: common peroneal nerve
B: Tibial nerve
C: superficial nerve
D: saphenous nerve
E: deep peroneal nerve
Q-39: Esophagus is drained by which portal vein tributaries
A: Azygous vein
B: Hemiazygous vein
C: Left Gastric vein
D; Right Gastric vein
E: Posterior intercostals vein
Q-40: A 15 years child came in peadritic clinic with history of sore throat & fever for 10 days .now he has presented with chest pain unrelated with respiration. From which structure pain arises:
A: Lungs
B: pleura
C: myocardium
D: pericardium
E: costochondral
Q-41: During development of testes, internal spermatic fascia is derived from
A: External OBLIQUE muscle
B: internal oblique muscle
C: fascia transversalis
D: psoas muscle
E: external oblique aponurosis
Q-42: Most Appropriate about upper 2/3 of anal canal
A: lined by stratified Squamous Epithelium
B: Drained by inferior rectal vein
C: sensitive to stretch
D: sensitive to pain & temperature
E: supplied by pudendal nerve
Q-43: A 30 years old laborer comes with history of bilateral loss of pain & temperature sensation at T4-8 level while intact sensation of fine & touch, postion & vibration sense. What is most likely cause:?
A: lesion at Anteriolateral tract bilaterally at T4-8
B: hemi section of cord at T4-8
C: thalamic lesion
D: hypothalamus
E: central cavitating lesion at T4-8
Q-44: occulomotor, trochlear & Abducent nerve supplies the muscle of Eye, regarding occulomotor nerve most likely is
A: traverses through superior orbital fissure
B: supplies All extra ocular muscle except lateral rectus & superior oblique
C: supplies medial rectus
D: moves eyeball upward & medially
E: supplies superior oblique muscle
Q-45: when tongue is protruded, it deviates, which nucleus is affected
A: Facial nucleus
B: hypoglossal nucleus
C: Abducent nucleus
D: Facial colliculus
E: Trigeminal nucleus
Q-46 Except Rods & cones, Most of retina is supplied by?
A: central retinal artery
B: short ciliary artery
C: choridal artery
D: short posterior ciliary artery
E: long posterior ciliary artery
Q-47: Final motor pathway:
A: Arises from premotor area of cerebral cortex
B: Arises at the level of the medullary decussation
C: Arises Above the level of medullary decussation
D: emerge at the level of intervertebral foramina from anterior nerve roots
E: Arises at the level of spinal cord only
Q-48: normal fetal heart rate is.
A: 100-140
B: 120-!60
C: 120-140
D: 180-200
E: 220-240
Q-49: young Adult came in OPD .his radial pulse is collapsing type with diastolic murmur, most likely cause is:
A: Aortic stenosis
B: Aortic regurgitation
C: Tricuspid regurgitation
D: Mitral stenosis
E: pulmonary stenosis
Q-50: CVP is decreased in.
A: Gram negative septicemia
B: Cardiac tamponade
C: pulmonary embolism
D: hemopericardium
E: constrictive pericarditis
Q-51: Paraneoplastic syndrome is associated with.
A: Breast cancer
B: Renal cell carcinoma
C: Small cell carcinoma
D: Thyroid carcinoma
E: Liver cancer
Q-52: Warfarin effect is increased when it is given with
A: Rifampicin
B: cimetidine
C: phenytoin
D: Isoniazid
E; carbamazepine
Q-53: Regarding beta blocker most inappropriate is.
A: Increase release of renin from kidney
B: Positive chronotropic
C: Positvie ionotrpoic
D: bronchoconstriction
E: Peripheral vasoconstriction
Q-54: A case of road traffic Accident patient came in emergency with 1.5 L blood loss, His skin is cold & clammy is due to
A: vasodilatation
B: sweating
C: vasoconstriction
D: vasoconstriction & sweating
E: hypotension
Q-55: Nutmeg liver is
A: centrilobular congestion
B: periportal congestion
C: peripheral congestion
D: cental congestion
E: centriacinar congestion
Q-56: A 26 years old patient presented with butterfly rash on face, arthrlgias & low grade fever for 3 month. The rash is accentuated by sun light, moist likely diagnosis is.
A: Dermatomyositis
B: POLYmyositis
C: Rheumatoid Arthritis
D: Sjogren syndrome
E: SLE
Q-57: Female patient is presented in OPD with proteinuria & flank pain. Lab investigation shows Anti ds DNA antibody positive. What is most likely diagnosis?
A: Amyloidosis
B: Lupus nephritis
C: Goodpasture syndrome
D: MPGN
E: RPGN
Q-58: A patient on Glucocorticoid therapy is most likely to decrease count of
A: Lymphocytes
B: Monocytes
C: RBC
D: Neutrophill
E; Platelets
Q-59: Renal blood Flow is best measured by.
A: inulin
B: PAHA
C: urea
D: creatinine
E: PABA
Q-60: A patient present in Emergency with Acute Severe Asthmatic Attack, what should be initial treatment of choice.
A: oral prednisolone
B: Ipratropium
C: Antibiotics
D: Salbutamol Nebulization
E; Zafirlukast
Q-61: A 3 year old child presented with history of fever. Neck & back stiffness of sudden onset, later develops flaccid paralysis of upper limbs, signs of meningeal irritation are present. Child is not immunized .which is most appropriate specimen for diagnosis.
A: Blood
B: CSF
C: stool
D: urine
E: sputum
Q-62: Most appropriate Antibody sequence in the diagnosis of Multiple Myeloma is.
A: IgA=0.3%, IgM0.2 %, IgG 15%
B: I IgA=1.3%, IgM 18%, IgG 23%
C: I IgA=3%, IgM 7%, IgG 13%
D: I IgA=6%, IgM 12%, IgG 10%
E: I IgA=8 %, IgM 2 %, IgG 17%
Q-63: Regarding Sturge Weber syndrome
A: Dislocation lo lens
B: Choroidal tumor
C: glaucoma
D: retinal Heamangiomas
E: Rubeosis iris
Q-64: Mechanism of Action of captopril
A: Inhibit angiotensin receptor
B: Decrease formation of Angiotensin 2
C: Antagonize Aldosterone
D: Releases Renin secretion
E: inhibit v2 receptors
Q-64: Bile salts are absorbed in
A; Duodenum
B: Jejunum
C: colon
D: Ileum
E: Stomach
Q-65: A 40 year old female, patient of DM type 2 since 10 years presented with symptoms of Abdominal distension after meal .what is most appropriate drug to treat her.
A: Diuretics
B: Metoclopromide
C: Antacids
D: proton pump inhibitors
E: H2 receptor blockers
Q-66: Tumor spreading via Lymphatic is.?
A: Angiosarcoma
B: Rhabdomyosarcoma
C: osteosarcoma
D: renal cell carcinoma
E liver cell carcinoma
Q-67: Platelet transfusion is not indicated in.?
A; ITP
B: Leukemia
C: Multiple transfusions
D: Patient with splenomegly
E; DIC
Q-68: A baby born with Erythroblastosis Fetalis, most likely Hypersensitivity reaction is.
A: type -1
B: type -2
C: type 3
D: type 4
E: type 5
Q-69: young female presented with jaundice, direct antiglobulin Antibody is positive. What is most likely diagnosis?
A: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B: Hepatocellular jaundice
C: Hemolytic Anemia
D: Obstructive jaundice
E:
Q-70: In HIV patient there is increase risk of infection because of decrease in
A: CD8 count
B: CD4 + lymphocytes
C: Antibodies
D: Natural killer cells
E: Macrophage
Q-71: The following Drug should be Avoided in patient with Renal disease?
A: Macrolide
B: Gentamicin
C: chloramphenicol
D: Isoniazid
E vancomycin
Q-72: Middle aged patient presented with Altered level of sensorium,fever & neck stiffness, signs of meningeal irritations are positive LP was performed which shows protein 600 mg/dl,Glucose 40mmg% WBC is about 120 with predominant of lymphocytes what is most likely diagnosis
A: Bacterial meningitis
B: Viral meningitis
C: TBM
D: septic meningitis
E: fungal meningitis
Q-73: Patient with hypertonia & paresis, lesion is at
A; cerebellum
B: brainstem
C: corticospinal & corticobulbar
D: LMN
E: tectospinal tract
Q-74: Most common cause of pulmonary Embolism is.?
A: paradoxical emboli
B: DVT
C: Immobilization
D: superficial vein thrombosis
E: pulmonary hypertension
Q-75: the part of Hypothalamus which Regulate the circadian Rhythm is.
A: Preoptic nucleus
B: supraventicular nucleus
C: supra chiasmatic nucleus
D: septal nucleus
E: Para ventricular nucleus
Q-76: Most Appropriate Treatment of choice for Hyperthyroidism in Pregnancy is.?
A: Radioactive iodine
B: propylthiouracil
C: carbimazole
D: methimazole
E; iodine
Q-77: while performing bronchoscopy, the doctor introduced bronchoscope .the first structure will seen beyond the level of carina is.
A: upper lobe
B: Anterior upper lobe bronchus
C: Middle Lobe Bronchus
D: apical bronchus of lower lobe
E; lower lobe
Q-78: Absolute Lymphocytosis is not found in.
A: Congenital syphilis
B: infectious mononucleosis
C: pertusis
D: waldenstrom macroglobunimia
E: burkitt’s lymphoma
Q-79: After transplant Surgery which is not possible.
A: leukemia
B: cervical dysplasia
C: leukoblastic leukemia
D: Haemolysis
E: Liver cell carcinoma
Q-80: which of the following is not live Attenuated Vaccine
A: Measles
B: Mumps
C: rubella
D: Pertusis
E: Oral polio
Q-81 Antibody in Tuberculosis is
A: bound to cell
B: Attacked by Bacteria
C: inside the cell
D: provides immunity
E: present in serum
Q-82: Most aggressive tumor is.
A:Basal cell carcinoma
B: Squamous cell carcinoma
C: Melanoma
D: Kerato acnthoma
E sarcoma
Q83: neonate was brought by Mother with complain of failure to pass meconium Abdominal distension, Rectal biopsy shown Absence of Ganglionic cell. What is most likely cause?
A; Hirsh sprung disease
B: Meconium Illeus
C: intersection
D: sigmoid volvulus
E: Mekels diverticulum
Q84: Regarding Isoniazid
A: is nephrotoxic
B: Toxic effects can be prevented by pyridoxine
C: is hemotoxic
D: donot cause peripheral neuropathy
E: causes hyperuricemia
Q-85: In Quite Breathing, the principal inspiratoy muscle is
A: Diaphragm
B: internal intercostal
C: pectoralis major
D: levator costarum
E: scalenus Anterior
Q-86: Bile Acid is conjugated with,
A: Bilirubin Glucronide
B: Glycine & Taurine
C: Bilirubin transferase
D: bilirubin Glucuronyl transferase
E; hemoglobulin
Q-87: Regarding Thrombocyte Function in clotting
A: Adhere to fibroblast
B: Release platelet factor which start coagulation
C: causes clot expansion
D: causes clot retraction
E: causes clot disolution
Q-88: which of following have not effect on best prognosis of patient in renal transplant?
A: HLA typing
B: deceased or live donor
C: relative donor
D: donor having disorder of another organ system
E: sex of donor
Q-89: Human Major Histocompatibilty complex
A: codes for blood group
B: codes for three classes of antigen
C: is composed of HLA genes
D: resides on chromosomes 12
E; will be identical in twins
Q-90: Antigen-Antibody Reaction is characteristically suppressed by
A: ACTH
B: During blood transfusion in recipient
C: Anemia
D: liver failure
E: neutropenia
Q-91: The Diagnostic Differential feature Between Hyperplasia & Benign Tumor is.
A: increase in number of cells
B: increase in size of cells
C; number of mitotic figures
D: presence of capsule
E: resemblance of parent tissue
Q-92: A plumber presented in ER with sudden Onset of SOB, ABGs shown .PH 7.4, pco2= 31, HCO3 = 19, PO2 62. What is most likely diagnosis?
A: Metabolic Acidosis
B: Compensated Respiratory Acidosis
C: Mixed Acid Base Disorder
D: Compensated Metabolic Acidosis
E: Respiratory Acidosis
Q-93: Gastric Motility is increased by
A: HCL
B: Gastrin
C: CCK
D: secretin
E: GIP
recalled by latifaziz
Q1-A patient comes to a doctor with a complain of pain down the medial side of right forearm & hand ,wasting of the small muscles of hand .on examination ,circulation of right upper limb was also impaired .the anatomical structure:
A. head of right humerus
B. left cervical rib
C. right 2nd rib
D. right first rib
E. right cervical rib
Q 2-A 45 years old man fell on his back from the 2nd storey of building. Two days after admitting in hospital .he complained of inability to void urine & urinary incontinence. Most likely spinal segment involved is:
A. l2.3.4
B. l3,4.5
C. L5, s1, s2.
D. S1.s2.3
E. S2.3.4
Q 3-When performing lumber puncture .the following structure is pierced by needle:
A: the posterior longitudinal ligament
B: dura mater
C: pia mater
D: Denticulate ligament
Q 4.Fat absorption is occurs primarily in the
A: stomach
B: jejunum
C: terminal ileum
D: cecum
E: colon
Q 5. Secretion of HCL by gastric parietal cell is mediated by
A: H1 receptor
B: H2 receptor
C: pepsin
D: intrinsic factor
E: presence of food.
Q-6 Bicarbonate is absorbed from
A: proximal tubule
B: loop of henle
C: collecting tubule
D: proximal tubule & DCT
E: proximal tubule & collecting tubule
Q-7 A young female presented with high grade fever of 6 days duration for a definite diagnosis of typhoid, the most useful test at this stage would be
A: blood culture
B: stool culture
C: typhidot test
D: urine culture
E: widal test
Q-8A young man presented with low grade fever for the last three months, on examination, nasal bridge was distorted & cervical lymph nodes were palpable .histology of these lymph nodes revealed non caseating granuloma & positive AFB stain: most likely diagnosis is:
A: cat scratch disease
B: leprosy
C: sarcoidosis
D: syphilis
E: tuberculosis
Q-9: which of the following lab investigation is the best for monitoring of hepatitis B viral infection:
A: prothrombin time
B: serum Albumin
C: serum bilirubin
D: serum glutamic pyruvate transaminase
E: serum protein
Q-10:A lady had a difficult labour at home in village .she was brought to hospital with history of bleeding p/v & oozing from gums for the last 10 hours. Her blood complete picture revealed .Hb: 6 g/dl, platelets 30,000/cumm, TLC 24,000/cumm with neutophillia.the peripheral blood film shows burr cells. Her PT & APTT were prolonged. Most likely cause is:
A: disseminated intravascular coagulation
B: ITP
C: postpartum hemorrhage
D: septicemia
E: von will brand disease
Q-11: Most abundant endogenous pigment deposition in chronic haemolysis is:
A: bilirubin
B: biliverdin
C: haemosiderin
D: lipfuscin
E: melanin
Q-12: A 30 year old primigravida presented at 36 week of gestation with bilirubin of 20mgldl ,SGPT 275u/l & SGOT 193u/l .two month ago she visited her parents is a remote village .she has no history of surgery in past or blood transfusion .most likely cause of infection is:
A: hepatitis A
B: hepatitis B
C: hepatitis C
D: hepatitis D
E: hepatitis E
Q-13: Which of the following parasite is Associated with urinary bladder carcinoma.
A: leishmania donovani
B: schistosoma heamatobium
C: schistosoma japonicum
D: schistosoma mansoni
E: toxoplasma gondii
Q-14: Respiratory symptoms are characteristic of one of the following conditions:
A: ascariasis
B: billharziasis
C: cysticercosis
D: fascioliasis
E: giardiasis
Q-15: The most important distinguishing feature of exudate, compared to transudate is:
A: above 2.0gms% protein
B: albumin is the main protein
C: presence of the large number of inflammatory cells
D: presence of the large number of the platelets
E: specific gravity is about 1.020
Q-16: The natural antithrombotic agent which is present in blood is :
A: dimercaprol
B: heparin
C: plasminogen
D: vitamin C
E: warfarin
Q-17: A 30 years old female with joint pain & muscle stiffness for 3 years. HLA-DR4 is positive, what is most appropriate diagnosis.
A: ankylosing spondylitis
B: graves disease
C: myasthenia gravis
D: rheumatoid arthritis
E: SLE
Q-18 Regarding digoxin toxicity is increased by
A: hyperkalemia
B: Quinidine
C:
D: hypermagnesemia
E: hypocalcaemia
Q-19: Antiarrythmic Action of lidocaine on hear is.
A: Prolong Action potential duration
B: It Decreases automaticity
C: shortens RMP of heart
D: prolong the effective refractory period
E:
Q-20:A 60 year old patient of emphysema presents with Dyspnoea of sudden onset with chest pain .on examination pulse 110/min; Bp 105/85mmHg.trachea shifted towards right,hyperresonant percussion note & decreased breath sounds on the left side. the investigation which will be most helpful in the diagnosis is:
A: ABGs
B: cardiac enzymes
C: chest x-ray
D: E.C.G
E: sputum routine examination
Q-21: A 70 year old woman undergoes a gastrectomy for the zollinger-ellision syndrome. Her physician informs her that she will need to take intramuscular vitamin-b12 shots for the rest of her life. Absence of which of the following cell type is responsible for this vitamin replacement requirement.
A: chief cells
B: G cells
C: Goblet cell
D: Mucous neck cells
E: parietal cells
Q-22: A patient is to get renal transplant, the tissues for Histocompatibilty required would be.
A: Bone marrow
B: buccal mucosa
C: RBCs
D: renal tissue
E WBC
Q-23: Lesion of the Right optic tract causes:
A: left homonymous hemianopia
B: left nasal hemianopia
C: loss of papillary reflexes
D: Right temporal hemianopia
E; total blindness
Q-24: Slow wave sleep is induced by
A: dopamine
B: epinephrine
C: Glutamate
D: Acetylcholine
E: serotonin
Q-25: Duodenum contains
A: sub mucosal glands
B: well-developed plica
C: crypts
D: aggregation of lymphoid nodule
E: villi
Q-26: A patient has penetrating ulcer of the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum which blood vessels is subject to erosion:
A: common hepatic artery
B: Gastroduodenal artery
C: left Gastric artery
D: hepatic artery
E: Anterior inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
Q-27: hemiballismus result from lesion of
A: Globus Pallidus
B: caudate nucleus
C: internal capsule
D: sub thalamic nucleus
E: substantia nigra
Q-28: Subdural hematoma results from head trauma that tears the:
A: middle meningeal artery
B: Anterior division of middle meningeal artery
C: posterior division of middle meningeal artery
D: superficial temporal artery
E: superficial cerebral vein
Q-29: Neonate with erythroblastosis Fetalis is massively transfused with blood, After 10 days developed rash first on palms, then face & trunk along with diarrhea. What is the probable cause?
A: cytomegalovirus infection
B: GVH disease
C: Delayed transfusion reaction
D: Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
E: ABO incompatibility
Q-30: Pendular knee jerk is seen in lesion of:
A; sub thalamic nucleus
B: cerebellum
C: cerebral cortex
D: basal ganglion
E: spinal cord
Q-31: patient have positive Accommodation reflex but light reflex is lost, the lesion is at the level of.
A: occipital cortex
B: lateral Geniculate Body
C: superior collicilus
D: Pretectal area
E: Optic radiation
Q-32: Primary Hyperaldosteronism
A: Acidosis
B: Hpokalemia
C: hyponatremia
D: hypotension
E: Weakness
Q-33: Functional residual capacity
A: is measured by spirometry
B: is the sum of the Residual volume & inspiratoy reserve volume
C: is the sum o0f residual volume & vital capacity
D: is the sum of the residual volume & tidal volume
E: is the volume of the air remaining in the lungs after a normal tidal volume
Q-34:A 40 year old ,type 2 diabetic, he is 15 Ib overweight ,present with blood sugar of 20mmol/l he has no diabetic complication at the time of presentation .what is the most suitable initial treatment ,in addition to diet & exercise.?
A: Biguanide
B: Biguanide & sulphonylurea
C: insulin
D: insulin & sulphonylurea
E: sulphonylurea
Q-35 Side effects of thiazide diuretics.
A: hyperglycemia
B: hyperkalemia
C: hyperuricemia
D: hypocalcemia
E: hpernatremia
Q-36 Hypospadias occurs due to defect in
A: urogenital Ridge
B: urogenital tubercle
C: urogenital fold
D: urachus
E: Gubernaculum
Q-37: Retroperitoneal Abscess mostly involve
A: Descending colon
B: spleen
C: transverse colon
D: Appendix
E: cecum
Q-38: A 15 year old boy came to the clinic with history of splenomegly
With lymphadenopathy.bone marrow biopsy was performed on medial side of tibia in order to avoid injury to the:
A: common peroneal nerve
B: Tibial nerve
C: superficial nerve
D: saphenous nerve
E: deep peroneal nerve
Q-39: Esophagus is drained by which portal vein tributaries
A: Azygous vein
B: Hemiazygous vein
C: Left Gastric vein
D; Right Gastric vein
E: Posterior intercostals vein
Q-40: A 15 years child came in peadritic clinic with history of sore throat & fever for 10 days .now he has presented with chest pain unrelated with respiration. From which structure pain arises:
A: Lungs
B: pleura
C: myocardium
D: pericardium
E: costochondral
Q-41: During development of testes, internal spermatic fascia is derived from
A: External OBLIQUE muscle
B: internal oblique muscle
C: fascia transversalis
D: psoas muscle
E: external oblique aponurosis
Q-42: Most Appropriate about upper 2/3 of anal canal
A: lined by stratified Squamous Epithelium
B: Drained by inferior rectal vein
C: sensitive to stretch
D: sensitive to pain & temperature
E: supplied by pudendal nerve
Q-43: A 30 years old laborer comes with history of bilateral loss of pain & temperature sensation at T4-8 level while intact sensation of fine & touch, postion & vibration sense. What is most likely cause:?
A: lesion at Anteriolateral tract bilaterally at T4-8
B: hemi section of cord at T4-8
C: thalamic lesion
D: hypothalamus
E: central cavitating lesion at T4-8
Q-44: occulomotor, trochlear & Abducent nerve supplies the muscle of Eye, regarding occulomotor nerve most likely is
A: traverses through superior orbital fissure
B: supplies All extra ocular muscle except lateral rectus & superior oblique
C: supplies medial rectus
D: moves eyeball upward & medially
E: supplies superior oblique muscle
Q-45: when tongue is protruded, it deviates, which nucleus is affected
A: Facial nucleus
B: hypoglossal nucleus
C: Abducent nucleus
D: Facial colliculus
E: Trigeminal nucleus
Q-46 Except Rods & cones, Most of retina is supplied by?
A: central retinal artery
B: short ciliary artery
C: choridal artery
D: short posterior ciliary artery
E: long posterior ciliary artery
Q-47: Final motor pathway:
A: Arises from premotor area of cerebral cortex
B: Arises at the level of the medullary decussation
C: Arises Above the level of medullary decussation
D: emerge at the level of intervertebral foramina from anterior nerve roots
E: Arises at the level of spinal cord only
Q-48: normal fetal heart rate is.
A: 100-140
B: 120-!60
C: 120-140
D: 180-200
E: 220-240
Q-49: young Adult came in OPD .his radial pulse is collapsing type with diastolic murmur, most likely cause is:
A: Aortic stenosis
B: Aortic regurgitation
C: Tricuspid regurgitation
D: Mitral stenosis
E: pulmonary stenosis
Q-50: CVP is decreased in.
A: Gram negative septicemia
B: Cardiac tamponade
C: pulmonary embolism
D: hemopericardium
E: constrictive pericarditis
Q-51: Paraneoplastic syndrome is associated with.
A: Breast cancer
B: Renal cell carcinoma
C: Small cell carcinoma
D: Thyroid carcinoma
E: Liver cancer
Q-52: Warfarin effect is increased when it is given with
A: Rifampicin
B: cimetidine
C: phenytoin
D: Isoniazid
E; carbamazepine
Q-53: Regarding beta blocker most inappropriate is.
A: Increase release of renin from kidney
B: Positive chronotropic
C: Positvie ionotrpoic
D: bronchoconstriction
E: Peripheral vasoconstriction
Q-54: A case of road traffic Accident patient came in emergency with 1.5 L blood loss, His skin is cold & clammy is due to
A: vasodilatation
B: sweating
C: vasoconstriction
D: vasoconstriction & sweating
E: hypotension
Q-55: Nutmeg liver is
A: centrilobular congestion
B: periportal congestion
C: peripheral congestion
D: cental congestion
E: centriacinar congestion
Q-56: A 26 years old patient presented with butterfly rash on face, arthrlgias & low grade fever for 3 month. The rash is accentuated by sun light, moist likely diagnosis is.
A: Dermatomyositis
B: POLYmyositis
C: Rheumatoid Arthritis
D: Sjogren syndrome
E: SLE
Q-57: Female patient is presented in OPD with proteinuria & flank pain. Lab investigation shows Anti ds DNA antibody positive. What is most likely diagnosis?
A: Amyloidosis
B: Lupus nephritis
C: Goodpasture syndrome
D: MPGN
E: RPGN
Q-58: A patient on Glucocorticoid therapy is most likely to decrease count of
A: Lymphocytes
B: Monocytes
C: RBC
D: Neutrophill
E; Platelets
Q-59: Renal blood Flow is best measured by.
A: inulin
B: PAHA
C: urea
D: creatinine
E: PABA
Q-60: A patient present in Emergency with Acute Severe Asthmatic Attack, what should be initial treatment of choice.
A: oral prednisolone
B: Ipratropium
C: Antibiotics
D: Salbutamol Nebulization
E; Zafirlukast
Q-61: A 3 year old child presented with history of fever. Neck & back stiffness of sudden onset, later develops flaccid paralysis of upper limbs, signs of meningeal irritation are present. Child is not immunized .which is most appropriate specimen for diagnosis.
A: Blood
B: CSF
C: stool
D: urine
E: sputum
Q-62: Most appropriate Antibody sequence in the diagnosis of Multiple Myeloma is.
A: IgA=0.3%, IgM0.2 %, IgG 15%
B: I IgA=1.3%, IgM 18%, IgG 23%
C: I IgA=3%, IgM 7%, IgG 13%
D: I IgA=6%, IgM 12%, IgG 10%
E: I IgA=8 %, IgM 2 %, IgG 17%
Q-63: Regarding Sturge Weber syndrome
A: Dislocation lo lens
B: Choroidal tumor
C: glaucoma
D: retinal Heamangiomas
E: Rubeosis iris
Q-64: Mechanism of Action of captopril
A: Inhibit angiotensin receptor
B: Decrease formation of Angiotensin 2
C: Antagonize Aldosterone
D: Releases Renin secretion
E: inhibit v2 receptors
Q-64: Bile salts are absorbed in
A; Duodenum
B: Jejunum
C: colon
D: Ileum
E: Stomach
Q-65: A 40 year old female, patient of DM type 2 since 10 years presented with symptoms of Abdominal distension after meal .what is most appropriate drug to treat her.
A: Diuretics
B: Metoclopromide
C: Antacids
D: proton pump inhibitors
E: H2 receptor blockers
Q-66: Tumor spreading via Lymphatic is.?
A: Angiosarcoma
B: Rhabdomyosarcoma
C: osteosarcoma
D: renal cell carcinoma
E liver cell carcinoma
Q-67: Platelet transfusion is not indicated in.?
A; ITP
B: Leukemia
C: Multiple transfusions
D: Patient with splenomegly
E; DIC
Q-68: A baby born with Erythroblastosis Fetalis, most likely Hypersensitivity reaction is.
A: type -1
B: type -2
C: type 3
D: type 4
E: type 5
Q-69: young female presented with jaundice, direct antiglobulin Antibody is positive. What is most likely diagnosis?
A: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B: Hepatocellular jaundice
C: Hemolytic Anemia
D: Obstructive jaundice
E:
Q-70: In HIV patient there is increase risk of infection because of decrease in
A: CD8 count
B: CD4 + lymphocytes
C: Antibodies
D: Natural killer cells
E: Macrophage
Q-71: The following Drug should be Avoided in patient with Renal disease?
A: Macrolide
B: Gentamicin
C: chloramphenicol
D: Isoniazid
E vancomycin
Q-72: Middle aged patient presented with Altered level of sensorium,fever & neck stiffness, signs of meningeal irritations are positive LP was performed which shows protein 600 mg/dl,Glucose 40mmg% WBC is about 120 with predominant of lymphocytes what is most likely diagnosis
A: Bacterial meningitis
B: Viral meningitis
C: TBM
D: septic meningitis
E: fungal meningitis
Q-73: Patient with hypertonia & paresis, lesion is at
A; cerebellum
B: brainstem
C: corticospinal & corticobulbar
D: LMN
E: tectospinal tract
Q-74: Most common cause of pulmonary Embolism is.?
A: paradoxical emboli
B: DVT
C: Immobilization
D: superficial vein thrombosis
E: pulmonary hypertension
Q-75: the part of Hypothalamus which Regulate the circadian Rhythm is.
A: Preoptic nucleus
B: supraventicular nucleus
C: supra chiasmatic nucleus
D: septal nucleus
E: Para ventricular nucleus
Q-76: Most Appropriate Treatment of choice for Hyperthyroidism in Pregnancy is.?
A: Radioactive iodine
B: propylthiouracil
C: carbimazole
D: methimazole
E; iodine
Q-77: while performing bronchoscopy, the doctor introduced bronchoscope .the first structure will seen beyond the level of carina is.
A: upper lobe
B: Anterior upper lobe bronchus
C: Middle Lobe Bronchus
D: apical bronchus of lower lobe
E; lower lobe
Q-78: Absolute Lymphocytosis is not found in.
A: Congenital syphilis
B: infectious mononucleosis
C: pertusis
D: waldenstrom macroglobunimia
E: burkitt’s lymphoma
Q-79: After transplant Surgery which is not possible.
A: leukemia
B: cervical dysplasia
C: leukoblastic leukemia
D: Haemolysis
E: Liver cell carcinoma
Q-80: which of the following is not live Attenuated Vaccine
A: Measles
B: Mumps
C: rubella
D: Pertusis
E: Oral polio
Q-81 Antibody in Tuberculosis is
A: bound to cell
B: Attacked by Bacteria
C: inside the cell
D: provides immunity
E: present in serum
Q-82: Most aggressive tumor is.
A:Basal cell carcinoma
B: Squamous cell carcinoma
C: Melanoma
D: Kerato acnthoma
E sarcoma
Q83: neonate was brought by Mother with complain of failure to pass meconium Abdominal distension, Rectal biopsy shown Absence of Ganglionic cell. What is most likely cause?
A; Hirsh sprung disease
B: Meconium Illeus
C: intersection
D: sigmoid volvulus
E: Mekels diverticulum
Q84: Regarding Isoniazid
A: is nephrotoxic
B: Toxic effects can be prevented by pyridoxine
C: is hemotoxic
D: donot cause peripheral neuropathy
E: causes hyperuricemia
Q-85: In Quite Breathing, the principal inspiratoy muscle is
A: Diaphragm
B: internal intercostal
C: pectoralis major
D: levator costarum
E: scalenus Anterior
Q-86: Bile Acid is conjugated with,
A: Bilirubin Glucronide
B: Glycine & Taurine
C: Bilirubin transferase
D: bilirubin Glucuronyl transferase
E; hemoglobulin
Q-87: Regarding Thrombocyte Function in clotting
A: Adhere to fibroblast
B: Release platelet factor which start coagulation
C: causes clot expansion
D: causes clot retraction
E: causes clot disolution
Q-88: which of following have not effect on best prognosis of patient in renal transplant?
A: HLA typing
B: deceased or live donor
C: relative donor
D: donor having disorder of another organ system
E: sex of donor
Q-89: Human Major Histocompatibilty complex
A: codes for blood group
B: codes for three classes of antigen
C: is composed of HLA genes
D: resides on chromosomes 12
E; will be identical in twins
Q-90: Antigen-Antibody Reaction is characteristically suppressed by
A: ACTH
B: During blood transfusion in recipient
C: Anemia
D: liver failure
E: neutropenia
Q-91: The Diagnostic Differential feature Between Hyperplasia & Benign Tumor is.
A: increase in number of cells
B: increase in size of cells
C; number of mitotic figures
D: presence of capsule
E: resemblance of parent tissue
Q-92: A plumber presented in ER with sudden Onset of SOB, ABGs shown .PH 7.4, pco2= 31, HCO3 = 19, PO2 62. What is most likely diagnosis?
A: Metabolic Acidosis
B: Compensated Respiratory Acidosis
C: Mixed Acid Base Disorder
D: Compensated Metabolic Acidosis
E: Respiratory Acidosis
Q-93: Gastric Motility is increased by
A: HCL
B: Gastrin
C: CCK
D: secretin
E: GIP
Posted by latifaziz at 11:31 AM No comments:
Fcps
part 1
paper -1
Medicine & Allied
25 may 2010
recalled by dr latifaziz
Q-1: A 20 years old male has dyspnoea on lying down .the structure most likely to cause this is
A. enlarged isthmus of thyroid
B. multinodular goiter
C. puberty goiter
D. retrosternal goiter
E. solitary nodule goiter
Q-2: A 50 years old man has been diagnosed to have tuberculosis pleural effusion .the safest site of pleural fluid aspiration is:
A: lower border of the upper rib in mid-axillary line
B: lower border of the upper rib in mid clavicular line
C: middle of intercostals space in mid clavicular line
D: middle of the intercostal space in anterior axillary line
E: upper border of the lower rib with maximum area of dullness
Q-3: In cell division chromosomes begins to align at equator in
A: anaphase
B: metaphase
C: late interphase
D: early interphase
E: prophase
Q-4: Cephalic vein
A: begins in the region of anatomical snuff box
B: at the elbow is deep to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm
C: ends bye joining the brachial vein
D: is medial to the biceps brachii in the upper limb
E: has no valve
Q-5: To perform lumber in an adult, the needle is introduced between the spinous processes of:
A; L4 & 5
B: L2 & 3
C; S1 & L2
D: T12 & L1
E: S3 & L4
Q-6: Cauda equina is made of the the:
A: spinal nerves of s1-3
B: anterior rami of spinal nerves L1 to cocc1
C: posterior rami of spinal nerves L1 to cocc 1
D: sinal nerves of L1-5
E: anterior & posterior nerve root of the spinal nerves below the first lumber segment of spinal cord.
Q-7: Somatostatin inhibits the secretion of
A: Anti diuretic hormone
B: insulin
C: oxytocin
D: prolactin
E: thyroid hormone
Q-8: Volume of the air that can be forcibly expired after a maximal inspiration is:
A: functional residual capacity
B: residual volume
C: vital capacity
D: inspiratory capacity
E: Total lung capacity
Q-9: The long term use of estrogen containing oral contraceptive in female increases the risk of:
A: breast cancer
B: osteomalacia
C: osteoporosis
D: thrombo-embolism
E: vaginal cancer
Q-10: The diagnostic feature of the plasmodium falciparum infection is:
A: black water fever
B: disseminated intravascular coagulation
C: hemolytic anemia
D: hypoglycemia
E: nephrotic syndrome
Q-11: In omentum the most common type of the necrosis is:
Acaseous necrosis
B: coagulative necrosis
C: fat necrosis
D: gangrenous necrosis
E: liquefactive necrosis
Q-12: A 15 years old boy complained of loss of appetite, vomiting & high colored urine. Examination revealed yellow coloration of sclera .investigation of choice is:
A: Alkaline phosphatase estimation
B: hepatitis A & B
C: liver biopsy
D: bilirubin & ALT estimation
E: serum & urinary bilirubin
Q-13: The specimen to identify the organ treponema pallidum of the primary syphilis can be obtained from the site of:
A: Genital sore
B: lymph node
C: mouth
D: placenta
E: skin
Q-14: Regarding Growth:
A: Atrophy is a decrease in the size of or number of cells in tissues
B: hypoplasia is a recognized precursor of neoplasia
C: in hyperplasia there is an abnormal nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio
D: repair is a process where by lost tissue is replaced by tissue of same type
E squamous metaplasia occurs only in squamous epithelium
Q-15: Alleles are
A: broken off gene fragments
B: dominant genes
C: non-identical genes at the same locus
D: regulatory gene products
E structural gene products
Q-16: Most common side effect of chlorpromazine
A: polyuria
B: Dystonic reaction
C: Elation
D: weight gain
E: Depression
Q-17: The epitheloid cell of granulomatous inflammation is derived from.
A: Basophils
B: CD4+ lymphocytes
C: langerhan cells
D: monocytes-macrophage
E: plasma cells
Q-18: Most of carcinomas are associated with increase in following intermediate filaments:
A: Neuro filament
B: keratin
C: vimentin
D: desmin
E: lamin
Q-19: Barr body is mainly diagnostic feature of?
A: klinefelter syndrome
B: turner syndrome
C: Adrogenital syndrome
D: true hermaphrodite
E: Edward syndrome
Q-21: A middle aged woman has a 10 day history of the fever & continuous chest pain which worsens on lying down .what structure is involved.
A: peritoneum
B: pleura
C: endocardium
D: pericardium
E: myocardium
Q-22: feature of turner syndrome is:
A: Gyneacomastia
B: secondary Amenorrhea
C: low set ears
D: hypotension
E: short stature
Q-23: Infective endocarditis is caused by
A: streptococcus agalactiae
B: staphylococcus aureus
C: streptococcus pneumoniae
D: streptococcus pyogens
E: streptococcus viridians
Q-24: least likely cause of cardiogenic shock
A: Hemopericardium
B: Hypovolemia
C: Cardiac tamponade
D: Pulmonary Embolism
E: Constrictive pericarditis
Q-25: Water transport across the cell membrane?
A: passive Diffusion
B: is via pore mediated
C: is through cell membrane matrix
D: Active transport
E: pinocytosis
Q-26: Cholinergic stimulation causes
A: Atrial Contractility
B: Ciliary muscle contraction
C: vas-deference relaxation
D: Detrusor muscle relaxation
E: Ejaculation
Q-27: Withdrawal reflex receptor involved is.
A: Muscle spindle
B: Golgi Tendon
C: Pacinian corpuscle
D: Nociceptor
E: Meissner corpuscle
Q-28: Regarding Pulmonary Hamartoma, Most Unlikely is
A: usually occurs in less than 40 years of Age
B: formed from foci of hyaline cartilage
C: Rarely more than 4 cm
D: may contain ectopic Adrenal Tissue
E: commonly present as “COIN LESION” on chest x-ray
Q-29: Set point Temperature is regulated by.
A: Anterior Hypothalamus
B; Septal nucleus
C: Posterior Hypothalamus
D: Sweat Glands
E: skin
Q-30: Tumor that doesn’t metastasize to Bone is.
A: Breast Cell carcinoma
B: Prostate cancer
C: liver cell carcinoma
D: Thyroid cancer
E: lung cancer
Q-31: Micturition control center is present in
A: Cerebral cortex
B: S2, 3, 4
C: medulla
D: S1, 2
E Midbrain
Q-32: Square root of variance is
A: Co-efficient of variance
B: Median
C: Mode
D: Mean
E: Standard deviation
Q-33: Mean in large Proportion sampling
A: Mean shows greater value than Median
B: When sample is large then Mean also increases
C: Mean is equal to Median
D: Mean.Mode.Median are equal
E; Mean is less than median
Q-34: Stretch Reflex
A: Inverse stretch reflex is mediated by muscle spindle
B: Maintain muscle tone
C: Bisynaptic
D: Active muscle contraction stimulates group 1b fibers
Q-35: superior thyroid Gland
A: highly variable in position
B: lies at mid of posterior surface of thyroid gland at level of first tracheal ring
C: usually within the pretacheal fascial sheath at lower lobe
D: pretracheal fascia covers superficially
E: supplied by superior thyroid artery
Q-36: Regarding Neonate, This is Most Appropriates.
A: have smaller liver than adult
B: upper limb is less developed
C: lower limb is more developed
D; Has C shaped vertebral Column
E; Transverse section of thorax is oval
Q-37: Child with permanent disability & admitted in hospital, The most common reaction of his parents would be.
A: Anxiety
B: Denial
C: Repression
D: Depression
E: Regression
Q-38: Regarding neural Tube
A: Derivative of Notochord
B: give rise CNS
C: give rise PNS
D: give meninges & Schwann cells
E: is responsible for formation of primitive streak
Q-39; Doctor Want to improve the vitamin content of diet, so what he will add to Diet
A: Meat
B: Egg
C: Milk
D: margarine
E: More vegetables
Q-40: Best indicator of iron status in the body:
A: serum iron
B: serum ferritin
C: TIBC
D: Transferin saturation
E Dietary iron
Q-41: Deep cervical fascia in the neck spilt to enclose All of following except:
A: Submandibular gland
B: parotid gland
C: sublingual gland
D: thyroid gland
E: Trachea
Q-42: Following the Resection Anterior pituitary, this leads to Atrophy of
A: Adrenal medulla
B: Zona Glomerulosa
C: Zona Fasciculata
D: Para follicular C cells
E: Parathyroid gland
Q-43: Most common Predisposing factor for malignant melanoma
A: family history of breast cancer
B: Negros
C: nevocellula nevus
D: Dysplastic nevus syndrome
E: young Age
Q-44: Regarding vitamin D metabolism
A: 25-hydroxlation in kidney & 1- hydroxylation in liver
B: 1-hydroxylation occurs prior to 25 hydroxylation
C: 25-hydroxlation in kidney & 1-hydroxlation in kidney
D:1-hydroxlation in liver & 25- hydroxylation in liver
E: 25-hydroxylation in liver & 1-hydroxylation in liver
Q-45: Most lethal premalignant oral condition is
A: leukoplakia
B: Erythroplakia
C: Apthous ulcer
D: lichen planus
E; Kerato acnthoma
Q-46: Fluid passing from proximal convoluted tubule to loop of henle has higher concentration than plasma
A; contain more Na+ than plasma
B: osmolarity
C: contain more Glucose than plasma
D; More HCO3 than plasma
E: urea
Q-47: woman with history of loss of vision in Both temporal field plus prolactinoma & Amenorrhea. Lesion is located at.
A: optic tract
B: lateral Geniculate body
C: temporal lobe
D: optic radiation
E: Superior part of optic chiasma
Q-48: Excretion of Potassium will decrease if
A: High K+ in Diet
B: Hyperaldosteronism
C: Decreased absorption of NACL
D: increase Absorption of organic acid
E: Decrease Absorption of Na+ in collecting duct
Q-49: Most Specific Feature of malignancy
A: Atypia
B: Pleomorphisim
C: Invasion
D: Increase nuclear cytoplasmic ratio
E: hyperplasia
Q-50: Best Index of protein utilization in body is
A: Blood carbon
B: blood urea
C: urea & creatinine
D: urinary nitrogen content
E: Blood Ammonia
Q-51: Regarding smooth muscle fiber.
A: branched
B: innervated by neuromuscular nerve
C: mononucleated
D: striated
E: Multinucleated
Q-52: patient stands from supine position, which physiologic change will occur
A: Increase cardiac out
B: Decrease TPR
C: Increase preload
D: increase stroke volume
E: Increase heart rate
Q-53: Regarding stroke volume
A: Determinant of cardiac output
B: Associated with heart rate
C:
D:
E:
Q-54: Systemic filling pressure determines
A: Mean systemic arterial pressure
B: cardiac output
C: stroke volume
D: Right Atrial pressure
E Venous return
Q-55: Fastest conducting fibers of heart is
A: AV node
B: Atria
C: Av bundle
D: Purkinje fibers
E; SA node
Q-56: Regarding cardiac output
A: is measure of stroke volume only
B: Right & left ventricle contract simultaneously
C: increases in standing position
D: may be measured by oximeter
E: may be measured by fick’s principle
Q-57: Cardiac cycle
A: v-wave occurs due to Atrial contraction
B: Diastole is longer than systole normally
C: a wave is due to ventricular systole
D: Pressure increases in isovolumetric relaxation
Q-58: Atrial systole
A; C wave in jvp
B: PR interval on ECG
C: Responsible for 50% of ventricular filling
D: corresponds with rapid ventricular filling
E: Thired heart sound
Q-59: Aldosterone causes Absorption of
A: K+
B: HCO3
C: Na+
D: Na+ & cl
E; H+
Q-60: cell Bodies of Spinothalamic tract lies in
A: Thalamus
B: Medulla
C: Spinal cord
D: Dorsal Root Ganglion
E: somatosensory cortex
Q-61: Regarding Cerebellum
A: has Afferent Input from motor cortex
B: Has Afferent input from Muscle proprioception
C: Has Afferent input from vestibular nuclei
D: is essential for fine co-ordinated Movement
E: Modifies spinal cord motor output
Q-62: Regarding Capillary Hydrostatic pressure
A: Increased by constriction of Afferent arteriole
B: Increased by constriction of Efferent Arteriole
C: Decreased by increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
D: Increased by Increased Plasma protein concentration
E: increased by obstruction of ureter
Q-63: Regarding Neuromuscular Junction
A: Atropine Block the receptor at N.M junction
B: nicotinic receptor is blocked by Tubocurarine
C: pilocarpine Act on Nicotinic receptor
D:
E:
Q-64: Major Blood Buffer is
A: Protein
B: Phosphate
C: HCO3
D: Hemoglobulin
E: Anions
Q-65: Resolving power of lens is defined as
A Increasing Ability to focus on objects
B: is to magnify the image
C: Refraction power
D: increasing diffraction of two images
Q-66: Effects of high Altitude include
A: decreased Erythropoietin
B: increased po2
C: decreased 2.3 BPG
D; increased Alveolar ventilation
E: increased Co2
Q-67: Squamous Metaplasia occurs in
A: vagina
B: Barrette Esophagus
C: cervix
D: uterus
E: Stomach
Q-68: Miscelle formation is necessary for Absorbtion of
A: vitamin B complex
B: protein
C: Long chain fatty Acid
D: Mineral
E: carbohydrate
Q-69; To save the Drug from First pass Effect, which Route will be safe.
A: Intramuscular
B: Intra rectal
C: Oral route
D: slow release oral suspension
E: Rapid release oral suspension
Q-70: Most characteristic Feature of shock
A: cerebral Edema
B: Tachycardia
C: hypotension
D: tissue Hypoxia
E: vasodilatation
Q-71: regarding PCWP
A: indirectly measure of Right Atrial pressure
B: indirectly measure of Left Atrial pressure
C: Wedge shaped catheter is used in Right Atria
D: is > 15mmhg in Tricuspid stenosis
E: is measure of pressure in superior vena cava
Q-72: Most important test for Prenatal Diagnosis.
A: ultrasound
B: Amniocentesis
C: chorionic villus sampling
D: cordocentesis
E cordocentesis
Q-73: Left Renal vein
A: crosses posterior to Aorta
B: lies posterior to Left renal Artery
C; Crosses Anterior to Aorta
D: Posterior to inferior vena cava
E: Anterior left renal Artery
Q-74: Nissel substance is primarily composed of:
A: Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
B: Granular Endoplasmic reticulum
C: Microfilaments
D: Microtubules
E: Protein
Q-75: Regarding Circumduction
A: occurs at ball & socket joint only
B: Flexion, Extension, Abduction, Adduction
C: Medial rotation & lateral rotaton, abduction & Adduction
D: medial & lateral rotation, Flexion & Extension
E: Uniaxial movement
Q-76: External Jugular vein
A: Formed by union of post: division of Retromandibular vein & Anterior Auricular vein
B: Formed anterior to sternocleidomastoid muscle behind the Angle of Mandible
C: have no tributaries
D: Pierces deep fascia
E: drains into Axillary vein
Q-77: Regarding Bronchopulmonary segment
A: is functional unit of lung
B; contain pulmonary Artery & vein at center
C: contain pulmonary Artery & vein at periphery
D: supplied by terminal Bronchioles
E:
Q-78: A 30 years old female patient with vaginal discharge & low back ache, Pap smear shows squamous metaplasia, which Agent is responsible:
A: Herpes simplex virus-1
B: HPV
C: HSV-2
D: herpes zoster
E: trichomonas vaginalis
Q-79: Major Afferent Fibers to cerebellum is from:
A: Cerebral cortex
B: Midbrain
C: Medulla
C: Spinal cord
E: vestibular nuclei
Q-80: During Moderate Exercise pulmonary ventilation increase due to:
A: cerebral cortex
B: sensory proprioceptive receptor from joint & muscle
C: chemical stimulation
D: peripheral receptor stimulation
E:
Q-81: Gas Gangrene in limbs is caused by
A: clostridium biferenges
B: clostridium tetani
C: clostridium
D: clostridium botullinum
E: clostridium welchi
Q-82: Communication between Doctor & patient can be best improved by
A: Well decorated clinic
B: Active listening
C: logically Answering All Questions of patient
D: warm welcome of patient
E: doctor should be socially active
Q-83: virus Act by
A: free radical formation
B: Altering protein synthesis
C: Damaging cell membrane
D: damaging nucleus
E: damaging mitochondria
Q-84 Digastric triangle
A: formed by anterior & posterior belly of digastirc musle & mandible
B:
C:
D:
E:
Q-85: When fifth lumber vertebra is fused with first sacral vertebra, Term best to describe it.
A; Kyphosis
B: Lumbago
C: Lateralization
D: Sacralization
E: scoliosis
Q-87: Regarding Monocytes
A; It can transform into multinucleated cell in certain disease
B:
C:
D:
E:
Q-88: wound healing is delayed by
A: Immobilization
B: vitamin c
C; blood flow
D:
E:
Q-89: Most common hormone in Stress
A: Cortisoll
B: catecholamine
C: Dopamine
D: ACTH
E: serotonin
Q-90: Largest Representation in cerebral cortex
A: shoulder
B: knee
C: Elbow
D: thumb
E: trunk
Q-91: Which of following is not Epithelial Origin?
A: Adenocarcinoma
B: Papilloma
C: Fibroma
D: sarcoma
E:
Q-92:Baby was born With Blood Group with B negative & Mother was B negative & father B+ ,this child have Developed severe Erythroblastosis Fetalis ,Best Treatment of This baby is
A: Exchange transfusion with B+ blood group
B: Exchange transfusion with B negative blood Group
C: Exchange transfusion with AB blood group
D: Exchange transfusion with O blood Group
E: Exchange transfusion with A blood group
Q-93: A 30 year laborer doing work in hot Weather having severe Sweating, which ion will compensate most?
A: k+
B: Na+
C: cl-
D: HCO3
E: Mg+
Q-94: Passive Diffusion which is carried by carrier mediated protein is
A: Facilitated Diffusion
B: Active transport
C: Osmosis
D: pinocytosis
E: endocytosis
Q-95: Regarding cerebrospinal fluid.
A: may give rise false positive VDRL in neurosyphilis
B: Absorbed from choroid plexus
C: produced by Arachnoids granulation
D: have increase sugar in bacterial meningitis
E: pass immediately cisterna magna before subarachnoid space
Q-96: Regarding cerebrospinal fluid.
A: Produced by superior sagital sinus
B: Absorbed in Arachnoids granulation
C:
D:
paper -1
Medicine & Allied
25 may 2010
recalled by dr latifaziz
Q-1: A 20 years old male has dyspnoea on lying down .the structure most likely to cause this is
A. enlarged isthmus of thyroid
B. multinodular goiter
C. puberty goiter
D. retrosternal goiter
E. solitary nodule goiter
Q-2: A 50 years old man has been diagnosed to have tuberculosis pleural effusion .the safest site of pleural fluid aspiration is:
A: lower border of the upper rib in mid-axillary line
B: lower border of the upper rib in mid clavicular line
C: middle of intercostals space in mid clavicular line
D: middle of the intercostal space in anterior axillary line
E: upper border of the lower rib with maximum area of dullness
Q-3: In cell division chromosomes begins to align at equator in
A: anaphase
B: metaphase
C: late interphase
D: early interphase
E: prophase
Q-4: Cephalic vein
A: begins in the region of anatomical snuff box
B: at the elbow is deep to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm
C: ends bye joining the brachial vein
D: is medial to the biceps brachii in the upper limb
E: has no valve
Q-5: To perform lumber in an adult, the needle is introduced between the spinous processes of:
A; L4 & 5
B: L2 & 3
C; S1 & L2
D: T12 & L1
E: S3 & L4
Q-6: Cauda equina is made of the the:
A: spinal nerves of s1-3
B: anterior rami of spinal nerves L1 to cocc1
C: posterior rami of spinal nerves L1 to cocc 1
D: sinal nerves of L1-5
E: anterior & posterior nerve root of the spinal nerves below the first lumber segment of spinal cord.
Q-7: Somatostatin inhibits the secretion of
A: Anti diuretic hormone
B: insulin
C: oxytocin
D: prolactin
E: thyroid hormone
Q-8: Volume of the air that can be forcibly expired after a maximal inspiration is:
A: functional residual capacity
B: residual volume
C: vital capacity
D: inspiratory capacity
E: Total lung capacity
Q-9: The long term use of estrogen containing oral contraceptive in female increases the risk of:
A: breast cancer
B: osteomalacia
C: osteoporosis
D: thrombo-embolism
E: vaginal cancer
Q-10: The diagnostic feature of the plasmodium falciparum infection is:
A: black water fever
B: disseminated intravascular coagulation
C: hemolytic anemia
D: hypoglycemia
E: nephrotic syndrome
Q-11: In omentum the most common type of the necrosis is:
Acaseous necrosis
B: coagulative necrosis
C: fat necrosis
D: gangrenous necrosis
E: liquefactive necrosis
Q-12: A 15 years old boy complained of loss of appetite, vomiting & high colored urine. Examination revealed yellow coloration of sclera .investigation of choice is:
A: Alkaline phosphatase estimation
B: hepatitis A & B
C: liver biopsy
D: bilirubin & ALT estimation
E: serum & urinary bilirubin
Q-13: The specimen to identify the organ treponema pallidum of the primary syphilis can be obtained from the site of:
A: Genital sore
B: lymph node
C: mouth
D: placenta
E: skin
Q-14: Regarding Growth:
A: Atrophy is a decrease in the size of or number of cells in tissues
B: hypoplasia is a recognized precursor of neoplasia
C: in hyperplasia there is an abnormal nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio
D: repair is a process where by lost tissue is replaced by tissue of same type
E squamous metaplasia occurs only in squamous epithelium
Q-15: Alleles are
A: broken off gene fragments
B: dominant genes
C: non-identical genes at the same locus
D: regulatory gene products
E structural gene products
Q-16: Most common side effect of chlorpromazine
A: polyuria
B: Dystonic reaction
C: Elation
D: weight gain
E: Depression
Q-17: The epitheloid cell of granulomatous inflammation is derived from.
A: Basophils
B: CD4+ lymphocytes
C: langerhan cells
D: monocytes-macrophage
E: plasma cells
Q-18: Most of carcinomas are associated with increase in following intermediate filaments:
A: Neuro filament
B: keratin
C: vimentin
D: desmin
E: lamin
Q-19: Barr body is mainly diagnostic feature of?
A: klinefelter syndrome
B: turner syndrome
C: Adrogenital syndrome
D: true hermaphrodite
E: Edward syndrome
Q-21: A middle aged woman has a 10 day history of the fever & continuous chest pain which worsens on lying down .what structure is involved.
A: peritoneum
B: pleura
C: endocardium
D: pericardium
E: myocardium
Q-22: feature of turner syndrome is:
A: Gyneacomastia
B: secondary Amenorrhea
C: low set ears
D: hypotension
E: short stature
Q-23: Infective endocarditis is caused by
A: streptococcus agalactiae
B: staphylococcus aureus
C: streptococcus pneumoniae
D: streptococcus pyogens
E: streptococcus viridians
Q-24: least likely cause of cardiogenic shock
A: Hemopericardium
B: Hypovolemia
C: Cardiac tamponade
D: Pulmonary Embolism
E: Constrictive pericarditis
Q-25: Water transport across the cell membrane?
A: passive Diffusion
B: is via pore mediated
C: is through cell membrane matrix
D: Active transport
E: pinocytosis
Q-26: Cholinergic stimulation causes
A: Atrial Contractility
B: Ciliary muscle contraction
C: vas-deference relaxation
D: Detrusor muscle relaxation
E: Ejaculation
Q-27: Withdrawal reflex receptor involved is.
A: Muscle spindle
B: Golgi Tendon
C: Pacinian corpuscle
D: Nociceptor
E: Meissner corpuscle
Q-28: Regarding Pulmonary Hamartoma, Most Unlikely is
A: usually occurs in less than 40 years of Age
B: formed from foci of hyaline cartilage
C: Rarely more than 4 cm
D: may contain ectopic Adrenal Tissue
E: commonly present as “COIN LESION” on chest x-ray
Q-29: Set point Temperature is regulated by.
A: Anterior Hypothalamus
B; Septal nucleus
C: Posterior Hypothalamus
D: Sweat Glands
E: skin
Q-30: Tumor that doesn’t metastasize to Bone is.
A: Breast Cell carcinoma
B: Prostate cancer
C: liver cell carcinoma
D: Thyroid cancer
E: lung cancer
Q-31: Micturition control center is present in
A: Cerebral cortex
B: S2, 3, 4
C: medulla
D: S1, 2
E Midbrain
Q-32: Square root of variance is
A: Co-efficient of variance
B: Median
C: Mode
D: Mean
E: Standard deviation
Q-33: Mean in large Proportion sampling
A: Mean shows greater value than Median
B: When sample is large then Mean also increases
C: Mean is equal to Median
D: Mean.Mode.Median are equal
E; Mean is less than median
Q-34: Stretch Reflex
A: Inverse stretch reflex is mediated by muscle spindle
B: Maintain muscle tone
C: Bisynaptic
D: Active muscle contraction stimulates group 1b fibers
Q-35: superior thyroid Gland
A: highly variable in position
B: lies at mid of posterior surface of thyroid gland at level of first tracheal ring
C: usually within the pretacheal fascial sheath at lower lobe
D: pretracheal fascia covers superficially
E: supplied by superior thyroid artery
Q-36: Regarding Neonate, This is Most Appropriates.
A: have smaller liver than adult
B: upper limb is less developed
C: lower limb is more developed
D; Has C shaped vertebral Column
E; Transverse section of thorax is oval
Q-37: Child with permanent disability & admitted in hospital, The most common reaction of his parents would be.
A: Anxiety
B: Denial
C: Repression
D: Depression
E: Regression
Q-38: Regarding neural Tube
A: Derivative of Notochord
B: give rise CNS
C: give rise PNS
D: give meninges & Schwann cells
E: is responsible for formation of primitive streak
Q-39; Doctor Want to improve the vitamin content of diet, so what he will add to Diet
A: Meat
B: Egg
C: Milk
D: margarine
E: More vegetables
Q-40: Best indicator of iron status in the body:
A: serum iron
B: serum ferritin
C: TIBC
D: Transferin saturation
E Dietary iron
Q-41: Deep cervical fascia in the neck spilt to enclose All of following except:
A: Submandibular gland
B: parotid gland
C: sublingual gland
D: thyroid gland
E: Trachea
Q-42: Following the Resection Anterior pituitary, this leads to Atrophy of
A: Adrenal medulla
B: Zona Glomerulosa
C: Zona Fasciculata
D: Para follicular C cells
E: Parathyroid gland
Q-43: Most common Predisposing factor for malignant melanoma
A: family history of breast cancer
B: Negros
C: nevocellula nevus
D: Dysplastic nevus syndrome
E: young Age
Q-44: Regarding vitamin D metabolism
A: 25-hydroxlation in kidney & 1- hydroxylation in liver
B: 1-hydroxylation occurs prior to 25 hydroxylation
C: 25-hydroxlation in kidney & 1-hydroxlation in kidney
D:1-hydroxlation in liver & 25- hydroxylation in liver
E: 25-hydroxylation in liver & 1-hydroxylation in liver
Q-45: Most lethal premalignant oral condition is
A: leukoplakia
B: Erythroplakia
C: Apthous ulcer
D: lichen planus
E; Kerato acnthoma
Q-46: Fluid passing from proximal convoluted tubule to loop of henle has higher concentration than plasma
A; contain more Na+ than plasma
B: osmolarity
C: contain more Glucose than plasma
D; More HCO3 than plasma
E: urea
Q-47: woman with history of loss of vision in Both temporal field plus prolactinoma & Amenorrhea. Lesion is located at.
A: optic tract
B: lateral Geniculate body
C: temporal lobe
D: optic radiation
E: Superior part of optic chiasma
Q-48: Excretion of Potassium will decrease if
A: High K+ in Diet
B: Hyperaldosteronism
C: Decreased absorption of NACL
D: increase Absorption of organic acid
E: Decrease Absorption of Na+ in collecting duct
Q-49: Most Specific Feature of malignancy
A: Atypia
B: Pleomorphisim
C: Invasion
D: Increase nuclear cytoplasmic ratio
E: hyperplasia
Q-50: Best Index of protein utilization in body is
A: Blood carbon
B: blood urea
C: urea & creatinine
D: urinary nitrogen content
E: Blood Ammonia
Q-51: Regarding smooth muscle fiber.
A: branched
B: innervated by neuromuscular nerve
C: mononucleated
D: striated
E: Multinucleated
Q-52: patient stands from supine position, which physiologic change will occur
A: Increase cardiac out
B: Decrease TPR
C: Increase preload
D: increase stroke volume
E: Increase heart rate
Q-53: Regarding stroke volume
A: Determinant of cardiac output
B: Associated with heart rate
C:
D:
E:
Q-54: Systemic filling pressure determines
A: Mean systemic arterial pressure
B: cardiac output
C: stroke volume
D: Right Atrial pressure
E Venous return
Q-55: Fastest conducting fibers of heart is
A: AV node
B: Atria
C: Av bundle
D: Purkinje fibers
E; SA node
Q-56: Regarding cardiac output
A: is measure of stroke volume only
B: Right & left ventricle contract simultaneously
C: increases in standing position
D: may be measured by oximeter
E: may be measured by fick’s principle
Q-57: Cardiac cycle
A: v-wave occurs due to Atrial contraction
B: Diastole is longer than systole normally
C: a wave is due to ventricular systole
D: Pressure increases in isovolumetric relaxation
Q-58: Atrial systole
A; C wave in jvp
B: PR interval on ECG
C: Responsible for 50% of ventricular filling
D: corresponds with rapid ventricular filling
E: Thired heart sound
Q-59: Aldosterone causes Absorption of
A: K+
B: HCO3
C: Na+
D: Na+ & cl
E; H+
Q-60: cell Bodies of Spinothalamic tract lies in
A: Thalamus
B: Medulla
C: Spinal cord
D: Dorsal Root Ganglion
E: somatosensory cortex
Q-61: Regarding Cerebellum
A: has Afferent Input from motor cortex
B: Has Afferent input from Muscle proprioception
C: Has Afferent input from vestibular nuclei
D: is essential for fine co-ordinated Movement
E: Modifies spinal cord motor output
Q-62: Regarding Capillary Hydrostatic pressure
A: Increased by constriction of Afferent arteriole
B: Increased by constriction of Efferent Arteriole
C: Decreased by increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
D: Increased by Increased Plasma protein concentration
E: increased by obstruction of ureter
Q-63: Regarding Neuromuscular Junction
A: Atropine Block the receptor at N.M junction
B: nicotinic receptor is blocked by Tubocurarine
C: pilocarpine Act on Nicotinic receptor
D:
E:
Q-64: Major Blood Buffer is
A: Protein
B: Phosphate
C: HCO3
D: Hemoglobulin
E: Anions
Q-65: Resolving power of lens is defined as
A Increasing Ability to focus on objects
B: is to magnify the image
C: Refraction power
D: increasing diffraction of two images
Q-66: Effects of high Altitude include
A: decreased Erythropoietin
B: increased po2
C: decreased 2.3 BPG
D; increased Alveolar ventilation
E: increased Co2
Q-67: Squamous Metaplasia occurs in
A: vagina
B: Barrette Esophagus
C: cervix
D: uterus
E: Stomach
Q-68: Miscelle formation is necessary for Absorbtion of
A: vitamin B complex
B: protein
C: Long chain fatty Acid
D: Mineral
E: carbohydrate
Q-69; To save the Drug from First pass Effect, which Route will be safe.
A: Intramuscular
B: Intra rectal
C: Oral route
D: slow release oral suspension
E: Rapid release oral suspension
Q-70: Most characteristic Feature of shock
A: cerebral Edema
B: Tachycardia
C: hypotension
D: tissue Hypoxia
E: vasodilatation
Q-71: regarding PCWP
A: indirectly measure of Right Atrial pressure
B: indirectly measure of Left Atrial pressure
C: Wedge shaped catheter is used in Right Atria
D: is > 15mmhg in Tricuspid stenosis
E: is measure of pressure in superior vena cava
Q-72: Most important test for Prenatal Diagnosis.
A: ultrasound
B: Amniocentesis
C: chorionic villus sampling
D: cordocentesis
E cordocentesis
Q-73: Left Renal vein
A: crosses posterior to Aorta
B: lies posterior to Left renal Artery
C; Crosses Anterior to Aorta
D: Posterior to inferior vena cava
E: Anterior left renal Artery
Q-74: Nissel substance is primarily composed of:
A: Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum
B: Granular Endoplasmic reticulum
C: Microfilaments
D: Microtubules
E: Protein
Q-75: Regarding Circumduction
A: occurs at ball & socket joint only
B: Flexion, Extension, Abduction, Adduction
C: Medial rotation & lateral rotaton, abduction & Adduction
D: medial & lateral rotation, Flexion & Extension
E: Uniaxial movement
Q-76: External Jugular vein
A: Formed by union of post: division of Retromandibular vein & Anterior Auricular vein
B: Formed anterior to sternocleidomastoid muscle behind the Angle of Mandible
C: have no tributaries
D: Pierces deep fascia
E: drains into Axillary vein
Q-77: Regarding Bronchopulmonary segment
A: is functional unit of lung
B; contain pulmonary Artery & vein at center
C: contain pulmonary Artery & vein at periphery
D: supplied by terminal Bronchioles
E:
Q-78: A 30 years old female patient with vaginal discharge & low back ache, Pap smear shows squamous metaplasia, which Agent is responsible:
A: Herpes simplex virus-1
B: HPV
C: HSV-2
D: herpes zoster
E: trichomonas vaginalis
Q-79: Major Afferent Fibers to cerebellum is from:
A: Cerebral cortex
B: Midbrain
C: Medulla
C: Spinal cord
E: vestibular nuclei
Q-80: During Moderate Exercise pulmonary ventilation increase due to:
A: cerebral cortex
B: sensory proprioceptive receptor from joint & muscle
C: chemical stimulation
D: peripheral receptor stimulation
E:
Q-81: Gas Gangrene in limbs is caused by
A: clostridium biferenges
B: clostridium tetani
C: clostridium
D: clostridium botullinum
E: clostridium welchi
Q-82: Communication between Doctor & patient can be best improved by
A: Well decorated clinic
B: Active listening
C: logically Answering All Questions of patient
D: warm welcome of patient
E: doctor should be socially active
Q-83: virus Act by
A: free radical formation
B: Altering protein synthesis
C: Damaging cell membrane
D: damaging nucleus
E: damaging mitochondria
Q-84 Digastric triangle
A: formed by anterior & posterior belly of digastirc musle & mandible
B:
C:
D:
E:
Q-85: When fifth lumber vertebra is fused with first sacral vertebra, Term best to describe it.
A; Kyphosis
B: Lumbago
C: Lateralization
D: Sacralization
E: scoliosis
Q-87: Regarding Monocytes
A; It can transform into multinucleated cell in certain disease
B:
C:
D:
E:
Q-88: wound healing is delayed by
A: Immobilization
B: vitamin c
C; blood flow
D:
E:
Q-89: Most common hormone in Stress
A: Cortisoll
B: catecholamine
C: Dopamine
D: ACTH
E: serotonin
Q-90: Largest Representation in cerebral cortex
A: shoulder
B: knee
C: Elbow
D: thumb
E: trunk
Q-91: Which of following is not Epithelial Origin?
A: Adenocarcinoma
B: Papilloma
C: Fibroma
D: sarcoma
E:
Q-92:Baby was born With Blood Group with B negative & Mother was B negative & father B+ ,this child have Developed severe Erythroblastosis Fetalis ,Best Treatment of This baby is
A: Exchange transfusion with B+ blood group
B: Exchange transfusion with B negative blood Group
C: Exchange transfusion with AB blood group
D: Exchange transfusion with O blood Group
E: Exchange transfusion with A blood group
Q-93: A 30 year laborer doing work in hot Weather having severe Sweating, which ion will compensate most?
A: k+
B: Na+
C: cl-
D: HCO3
E: Mg+
Q-94: Passive Diffusion which is carried by carrier mediated protein is
A: Facilitated Diffusion
B: Active transport
C: Osmosis
D: pinocytosis
E: endocytosis
Q-95: Regarding cerebrospinal fluid.
A: may give rise false positive VDRL in neurosyphilis
B: Absorbed from choroid plexus
C: produced by Arachnoids granulation
D: have increase sugar in bacterial meningitis
E: pass immediately cisterna magna before subarachnoid space
Q-96: Regarding cerebrospinal fluid.
A: Produced by superior sagital sinus
B: Absorbed in Arachnoids granulation
C:
D:
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